Is a seller forced to make a reasonable effort to resell its good before comencing a breach of contract if the repudation was effective, but wrongful?
I've managed to forget as much about Article 2 as I've learned, but I'm going to guess that any duty to mitigate damages is, at best, going to go towards ultimate damages that can be claimed, not the timing of filing a lawsuit. If you repudiate, IIRC, outside of a few situations, that is a breach, effective or no, wrongful or no.
I could be totally wrong, I don't do much UCC work.
I traded in my fun blog for several legal blogs. Or, "blawgs," as the cutesy attorney blawgosphere likes to call 'em.
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